CSIR NET Life Science – Genetics Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022 - Examflame (2022)

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CSIR NET Life Science – Genetics Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022 - Examflame (1)

These Questions are strictly follow your syllabus of Life Science for CSIR NET and prepared under experts of this field. And the Question’s level matches the CSIR NET Exam level, so that this practice set of Questions will give you same exact feel of your exam. Also Check CSIR NET Life Science Study Material PDF Download Free 2022

Following Instructions to attempt the CSIR NET Life Science – Genetics Chapterwise Practice Questions

Table of Contents

  • In this practice post there are total 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are given from the Chapter Genetics for CSIR NET Life Science.
  • Take a sheet of Paper and write down numbers from 1 to 100 .
  • Also Take a separate copy or page for Rough calculations .
  • Solve the Questions in a given time interval which you can choose yourself as per your preparation level .
  • Write your correct answer you think in answer sheet made by you by solving the Question .
  • Match your answers with the correct Answer key attached below at the end of this post .
  • Be honest with yourself and don’t forget to comment your marks below in the comment section.

CSIR NET Life Science – Genetics Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022 [Practice Now]

  1. Which of the following chromosomal alterations would you expect to have the most drastic consequences?
    (a) inversion (b) duplication
    (c) translocation (d) deletion
  2. The most common lethal genetic disease in the United States is
    (a) sickle-cell an emia (b) cystic fibrosis
    (c) Huntington’s disease (d) hemophilia.
  3. There are various procedures that can be used to detect genetic disorders before birth. Among the tests discussed in this chapter, _ is the least invasive, while _ carries the highest risk.
    (a) chorionic villi sampling . . . amniocentesis
    (b) ultrasound imaging . . . fetoscopy
    (c) fetoscopy . . . chorionic villi sampling
    (d) fetoscopy . . . amniocentesis
  4. Tay-Sachs disease runs in Seema’s family. On a family pedigree, she saw a halfdarkened circle. This represented
    (a) a male with Tay-Sachs (b) a female with Tay-Sachs
    (c) a carrier male (d) a carrier female.
  5. On a pedigree tracing the inheritance of PKU, a horizontal line joins a black square and a half-black circle. What fraction of this couple’s children would you expect to suffer from PKU?
    (a) none (b) 1/4
    (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4
  6. Ram and Nidhi are apparently normal, but their daughter was born with alkaptonuria, an inherited metabolic disorder. If alkaptonuria is like most human hereditary disorders, the probability of their next child being born with alkaptonuria is
    (a) 0 (b) 1/4
    (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3
  7. Several inherited disorders are much more common in close-knit religious communities, such as the Amish(Jews), than in the general population. This is at least partly due to the fact that
    (a) people in such communities are more likely to marry relatives
    (b) shared environmental conditions such as diet can increase mutation rate
    (c) modern medical care is not widely available in such communities
    (d) community members care for each other and disorders are possed on.
  8. A heritable feature is a ____ and may have two or more variants called____ .
    (a) trait/characteristics (b) character/traits
    (c) character/factors (d) trait/factors
  9. In a cross between two heterozygotes (Aa), the F2 generation will be
    (a) in the ratio 1:3 heterozygous to homozygous
    (b) all heterozygous
    (c) in the ratio 1:1 homozygous to heterozygous
    (d) in the ratio 1:3 homozygous to heterozygous
  10. You set up an experiment in which you breed two populations of true-breeding pea plants. The first true-breeding population has yellow round seeds and the second has green wrinkled seeds. All of the F1 plants yield yellow round seeds. When you self fertilize the F1 the F2 generation yields a mixture of yellow round, yellow wrinkled, green round and green wrinkled seeds. What does this tell you about the alleles for seed color and shape?
    (a) the recessive alleles are always expressed
    (b) the alleles are on different chromosomes
    (c) the two alleles for each character segregate during gamete production
    (d) both genes are on the same chromosome
  11. You cross a true-breeding red-flowered snapdragon with a true-breeding white-flowered
    one. All of the F1 are pink. What does this say about the parent traits?
    (a) red and white are codominant
    (b) red is dominant
    (c) both red and white are recessive
    (d) red and white show incomplete dominance
  12. While on a field trip in the jungle you find a new species of mouse. You catch a pair and take them back to the lab. In mice, black coat color, B, is dominant to brown b, yet the female mouse gives rise to a large litter in which 9 of the offspring were black, 3 were brown and 4 were white. You conclude that
    (a) a new mutation has occurred in the mice
    (b) this is an example of polygenic inheritance
    (c) there must be an epistatic interaction influencing coat color
    (d) the coat color alleles are codominant
  13. A new breed of domestic cat, the Indian Curl Cat, has unusual curled-back ears. When the owners of Shulamith, the foundation cat from which the breed arose, crossed her with a normal straight-eared domestic cat in each of her litters roughly half of the kittens had curled ears. When both parents are curl cats, all the kittens have curled ears. What does this tell you about the curled-ear trait?
    (a) curled ears and straight ears are codominant traits
    (b) curled ears and straight ears are show incomplete dominance
    (c) curled ears are dominant
    (d) curled ears are recessive
  14. John and Jesica are planning a family, but since each has a brother who has sickle cell anemia, they are concerned that their children may develop sickle-cell disease. Neither John, Jane nor their respective parents have the disease. They consult a genetic counselor who tells them
    (a) there is very little chance that any of their children will have sickle-cell disease
    (b) that all of their children will have sickle-cell disease
    (c) that one out of four of their children could be expected to have sickle cell-disease
    (d) that its possible that none of their children will have the disease but blood tests on them both will be required to make sure
  15. Why is sickle cell disease so called?
    (a) because it makes people sick
    (b) its named after a special type of white blood cell
    (c) pH changes in the blood cells make them collapse into a sickle shape
    (d) because its caused by an infectious microorganism that has sickle shaped cells
  16. In people with sickle cell disease the red blood cells breakdown, clump, and clog the blood vessels. The broken cells accumulate in the spleen. Among other things this leads to physical weakness, heart failure, pain, brain damage and spleen damage. Affected individuals become paralyzed and can develop rheumatism, pneumonia and other diseases and kidney failure. This is an example of
    (a) the polygenic nature of sickle cell disease
    (b) the pleiotropic effects of the sickle cell allele
    (c) an epistatic interaction between the sickle cell allele and a proteolytic enzyme gene
    (d) infectious organisms acting on the sickle cell allele
  17. Heart disease, diabetes, cancer, alcoholism and many mental illnesses can best be described as:
    (a) symptoms of a bad life-style
    (b) infectious diseases caused by microorganisms
    (c) multifactorial disorders with a possible polygenic component
    (d) all symptoms of Huntingdon’s disease
  18. The genetic disease cystic fibrosis is caused by a defective allele that
    (a) produces a dysfunctional enzyme that fails to break down brain lipids.
    (b) causes hemoglobin molecules to collapse.
    (c) produces a defective chlorine-channel membrane transport protein.
    (d) produces a neurotoxin
  19. Huntington’s disease is an example of a genetic disorder caused by
    (a) a late-acting lethal dominant allele
    (b) a non-lethal dominant allele
    (c) a late acting recessive allele
    (d) homozygous recessive alleles
  20. Which of the following is a form of sexual reproduction?
    (a) budding (b) fission
    (c) hermaphroditism (d) regeneration
  21. The most common phenotype in a natural population is referred to as the
    (a) genotype (b) wild type
    (c) autosome (d) mutant phenotype
  22. Human males are much more likely to be have hemophilia (a failure of blood to clot properly) than human females. This is the case because
    (a) hemophilia is a contagious disease to which males are more susceptible
    (b) the gene for hemophilia is carried on the Y chromosome
    (c) hemophilia is carried on the autosomes
    (d) the gene for hemophilia is sex-linked
  23. In a particular species of mammal black hair (B) is dominant to green hair (b) and red eyes (R) are dominant to white eyes (r). If a BbRr individual is mated with a bbrr individual the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 1 black-red : 1 black-white: 1 green-red : 1 green-white. However, when you mate these individuals you find that the phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 6 black-red : 1 black-white : 1 green-red : 6 green-white. What could account for this difference?
    (a) The genes for hair color and the genes for eye color are carried on different chromosomes
    (b) The expected results did not take genetic recombination into account
    (c) The genes for hair color and eye color are linked
    (d) The genes for hair color and eye color show dependent assortment
  24. In the problem no. 23 the observed F2 generation distribution of offspring was: blackred 1,070; black-white 177; green-red 180; green-white1072. Based on this data, what is the recombination frequency ?
    (a) 30 percent (b) 7 percent
    (c) 17 percent (d) 14 percent
  25. How many map units is a recombination frequency of 5 percent equal to?
    (a) 2.5 centimorgans (b) 10 centimorgans
    (c) 5 centisturtevants (d) 5 centimorgans
  26. A linkage map
    (a) orders genes on a chromosome based on recombination frequencies
    (b) can only be constructed for sex chromosomes
    (c) orders genes on a chromosome based on their location with respect to a stained band
    (d) shows the actual ordering and spacing of genes on a chromosome
  27. A male bee is
    (a) X Y (b) diploid
    (c) hapliod (d) Z W
  28. What is the probability that a male will inherit an X-linked recessive gene from his father?
    (a) 0 (b) 25 percent
    (c) 50 percent (d) 75 percent
  29. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. Its victims are almost invariably boys, who usually die before the age of 20. Why is this disorder almost never seen in girls?
    (a) Sex-linked traits are never seen in girls
    (b) The allele is carried on the Y chromosome
    (c) Nondisjunction occurs in males but not in females
    (d) In order to express an X-linked recessive, a female must have two copies of the
  30. Which of the following human genetic disorders is sex linked?
    (a) hemophilia (b) PKU
    (c) cystic fibrosis (d) achondroplasia
  31. A genetic defect in humans results in the absence of sweat glands in the skin. Some men have this defect all over their bodies, but in women it is usually expressed in a peculiar way. A woman with this defect typically has small patches of skin with sweat glands and other patches where sweat glands are lacking. This pattern suggests the phenotypic effect of
    (a) a mutation
    (b) chromosome inactivation
    (c) RNA splicing
    (d) an operon
  32. Which of the following is correct with regard to aneuploidy?
    (a) inversion
    (b) 2n + 1
    (c) All aneuploid individuals die before birth
    (d) 4n
  33. If a fragment of a chromosome breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called
    (a) a deletion (b) an inversion
    (c) a translocation (d) a nondisjunction
  34. Why are individuals with an extra chromosome 21, which causes Down syndrome, more numerous than individuals with an extra chromosome 3 or chromosome 16?
    (a) There are probably more genes on chromosome 21 than on the others
    (b) Chromosome 21 is a sex chromosome and 3 and 16 are not
    (c) Down syndrome is not more common, just more serious
    (d) Extra copies of the other chromosomes are probably fatal
  35. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, while our closest relatives, chimpanzees, have 24. Chromosome studies indicate that at some point early in human evolution, two chromosomes simultaneously broke into a large portion and a small portion. The large parts combined to form a large chromosome, and the small parts combined to form a much smaller chromosome (which was subsequently lost). This important chromosomal change could best be described as
    (a) nondisjunction followed by deletion
    (b) translocation followed by deletion
    (c) duplication followed by deletion
    (d) translocation followed by inversion
  36. Each cell in an individual with Down syndrome contains __ chromosomes.
    (a) 47 (b) 22
    (c) 24 (d) 45
  37. Disorders involving unusual numbers of sex chromosomes show that maleness is caused by the
    (a) presence of an X chromosome
    (b) presence of a Y chromosome
    (c) absence of an X chromosome
    (d) absence of a Y chromosome
  38. A particular allele can have different effects if it was inherited from a male rather than a female. This phenomenon is known as
    (a) extranuclear inheritance
    (b) genome imprinting
    (c) sex-linkage
    (d) Prader-Willi syndrome
  39. Human mitochondria
    (a) are inherited as an X-linked trait
    (b) are all inherited from the father
    (c) have linear DNA
    (d) are all inherited from the mother
  40. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria
    (a) are found within the nucleus
    (b) have linear DNA
    (c) carry extranuclear genes
    (d) display a Mendelian pattern of inheritance
  41. Who demonstrated that genes are located on chromosomes?
    (a) Morgan (b) Meselson and Stahl
    (c) Chargaff (d) Franklin
  42. In Griffith’s experiments, a harmless variant of S. pneumoniae became pathogenic when mixed with a heat-killed pathogenic variant as a result of
    (a) conjugation (b) transduction
    (c) mutation (d) transformation
  43. In an important experiment, bacteriophages were allowed to infect bacteria. In the first trial, the phages used contained radioactive DNA, and radioactivity was detected in the bacteria. Next, other phages containing radioactive protein were allowed to infect bacteria, and no radioactivity was detected in the bacteria. When the experimenters compared the results of these two trials, they concluded that
    (a) genes are made of DNA
    (b) bacteriophages can infect bacteria
    (c) DNA is made of nucleotides
    (d) genes carry information for making proteins
  44. A geneticist raised a crop of T2 bacteriophages in a medium containing radioactive phosphorus, so that the DNA of the bacteriophages was labeled with radioactivity. The labeled phages were then allowed to infect nonradioactive bacteria. In a few hours, these bacteria burst open, releasing many bacteriophages. Some of these phages contained labeled
    (a) DNA
    (b) RNA
    (c) protein
    (d) DNA and protein only
  45. Scientists have discovered how to put together a bacteriophage with the protein coat of phage T2 and the DNA of phage T4. If this composite phage were allowed to infect a bacterium, the phages produced in the host cell would have
    (a) the protein of T2 and the DNA of T4
    (b) the protein of T4 and the DNA of T2
    (c) the protein and DNA of T2
    (d) the protein and DNA of T4
  46. Chargaff found that for DNA
    (a) the ratio of A to C is close to 1:1 and the ratio of G to T is close to 1:1
    (b) the ratio of A to T is close to 1:1 and the ratio of G to C is close to 1:1
    (c) the ratio of A to G is close to 1:1 and the ratio of T to C is close to 1:1
    (d) A + T = G + C
  47. The X-ray diffraction studies conducted by __ were key to the discovery of the
    structure of DNA.
    (a) McClintock (b) Franklin
    (c) Meselson and Stahl (d) Chargaff
  48. Which of the following is not true of DNA?
    (a) A pairs with T and G pairs with C
    (b) Nitrogen bases are 0.34 nm apart on a DNA strand
    (c) The double helix is 2.0 nm wide
    (d) The double helix is 3.4 nm wide
  49. Which of the following is correct?
    (a) A forms 2 hydrogen bonds with G; T forms 3 hydrogen bonds with C
    (b) A forms 3 hydrogen bonds with T; G forms 2 hydrogen bonds with C
    (c) A forms 2 covalent bonds with T; G forms 3 covalent bonds with C
    (d) A forms 2 hydrogen bonds with T; G forms 3 hydrogen bonds with C
  50. Which of the following is not needed for DNA replication?
    (a) ribosomes (b) DNA
    (c) nucleotides (d) enzymes
  51. If reciprocal cross to not yield equal result it suggest that characters are-
    (a) X-linked (b) Autosomal
    (c) Extra-chromosomal (d) None
  52. The difference which distinguish prokaryotic cell from eukaryotic is-
    (a) ER
    (b) Mesosome
    (c) Nuclear Membrane
    (d) Plasma membrane
  53. During crossing over, exchange of genetic material takes place between
    (a) Two chromatids
    (b) Two chromosomes
    (c) the non-sister chromatids of the paired chromosomes
    (d) Two sister chromatids of each homologue
  54. The segregation of Mendelian factors takes place during-
    (a) Meiosis I (b) Meiosis II
    (c) Mitosis (d) Inter phase
  55. During Mitosis suddenly the chromosomes starts moving toward the opposite poles during-
    (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase
    (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase
  56. Extra nuclear genetic material is found in-
    (a) Ribosome (b) ER
    (c) Chloroplast (d) Centriole
  57. Dosage Compensation in case of human is achieved by-
    (a) Hyper activation of X Chromosome
    (b) Hyper activation of Y chromosome
    (c) Heterochromatization of X chromosome
    (d) Heterochromatization of Y chromosome
  58. Extra nuclear inheritance is due to which organelle-
    (a) Ribosome (b) Centriole
    (c) Plastid (d) Nucleus
  59. The introduced cells in a tissue culture are made to divide and form a mass of undifferentiated tissue cells called callus by
    (a) adjusting the ratio of auxin-cytokinin
    (b) transferring the plantlets to pots in natural environment
    (c) keeping the inoculated vessels at a desired constant temperature in an incubator
    (d) solidifying the enriched mineral medium with agar
  60. The first step in the technique of protoplasmic fusion is the
    (a) hybridization
    (b) collection of somatic cells
    (c) isolation of protoplasts
    (d) selection and isolation of somatic cells
  61. The acrosome of the sperm is formed from the
    (a) mitochondria (b) centrosome
    (c) lysomome (d) golgi bodies
  62. A technician wanted to make antibody specific for mouse IgM. Accordingly he injected a rabit with purified mouse IgM and obtained an an antiserum that reacted strongly with mouse IgG. Unfortunately, however antiserum was also found to react with other mouse Ig classes. Such result would be obtained if antiserum contained antibodies directed against-
    (a) The variable region of heavy chain
    (b) The constant region of heavy chain
    (c) The Fc portion of Ig molecule
    (d) The light chain of Ig molecule
  63. The average length of gene is –
    (a) 500 bp (b) 1000bp
    (c) 2000bp (d) 5000bp
  64. Aleurone layer is outermost layer of endosperm in cereals. It helps in-
    (a) Protection of endosperm
    (b) Growth of endosperm
    (c) Mobilization of reserve food in endosperm
    (d) Accumulation of reserve food in endosperm
  65. Genetically engineered male sterile crops plants have been produced by inserting-
    (a) Viral coat protein gene (b) Chitinase gene
    (c) Barnase gene (d) Opaque Z-gene
  66. How many mitotic division are required to produce 12 pollen grains in cyperaceae family-
    (a) 2 (b) 6
    (c) 3 (d) 12
  67. Which plant is used as model system to study developmental genetics of zygotic embryogenesis-
    (a) Dacus carota
    (b) Arabidposis thaliana
    (c) Zea mays
    (d) Nicotiana tobacum
  68. Your friend has just returned from the exam hall looking very nervous. He was asked to choose a method for separating 3 amino acids differing in their polar side chains. This method he choose was paper electrophoresis-
    (a) You tell him he choose the right technique since this is a method of choice for separating amino acids with different polarities
    (b) You tell him he chooses wrong technique relies on net charge
    (c) You tell him he is wrong because this technique also depends on how strongly the amino acids bind to paper
    (d) You tell him he is safe as long as he chooses a separation technique used for amino acids
  69. Protein folding is mainly driven by all of the following except-
    (a) Hydrophobic interactions (b) Hydrogen bonds
    (c) Covalent bonds (d) Electrostatic attractions
  70. How many Barr bodies would be present in the WBC of an individual with 49 XXXYY paratype-
    (a) 1 (b) 3
    (c) 2 (d) 5
  71. An open reading frame is one that has-
    (a) No start and stop codon (b) A start & stop codon
    (c) No start but stop codon (d) A start but no stop codon
  72. When the human genome draft sequence was released, which was least expected-
    (a) The large amount of repetitive DNA
    (b) The size of total genome
    (c) The size of individual chromosomes
    (d) The small number of protein coding genes
  73. In Sanger’s Method of DNA sequencing, the growing DNA chains are terminated because-
    (a) DNA polymerase is not very processive
    (b) A radioactive nucleotide is incorporated
    (c) The substrates become limitation
    (d) A phosphodiester bond can not be made
  74. A recessive mutation is that-
    (a) Not expressed
    (b) Expressed only when heterozygous
    (c) Expressed only when homozygous or hemizygous
    (d) Eliminated by natural selection
  75. Catalytic antibodies function as enzymes on the principle of-
    (a) Enzymatic conversion of antibodies
    (b) Stabilizing transition state analogue of substrates
    (c) Antigen antibody affinity
    (d) Monoclonal antibodies with chemical
  76. In a Sephadex gel filteration column, a mixture of albumin, lysozyme and thymidine was loaded. In what sequence these will be eluted from the column-
    (a) Albumin > Lysozyme > Thymidine
    (b) Lysozyme > thymidine > Albumin
    (c) Thymidine > albumin > Lysozyme
    (d) Thymidine > Lysozyme > Albumin
  77. Animal viruses cannot be seen under phase contrast microscope because-
    (a) They do not have a defined morphology
    (b) They are too small to be seen under microscope
    (c) They do not have any envelop that make them transparent under microscope
    (d) Since they have no color, they are not visible
  78. You have homogenized plant tissue and would like to separate chloroplast from nuclei. Which of the following methods would be most suitable-
    (a) PAGE
    (b) Equilibrium density gradient centrifugation on CsCl gradients.
    (c) Differential centrifugation using sucrose gradients.
    (d) Gel filtration.
  79. Which is not antibacterial antibiotic-
    (a) Tetracycline (b) Streptomycin
    (c) Nystanin (d) Nalidixic acid
    234 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  80. Degradation of RNA by RNaseA is an example of-
    (a) covalent catalysis
    (b) Acid- base catalysis
    (c) Electrostatic catalysis
    (d) Nucleic acid catalysis
  81. Dehydrogenase enzymes of hexose mono phosphate shunt pathway are-
    (a) NAD specific (b) NADP specific
    (c) FAD specific (d) TPP specific
  82. Which of the following biochemical Rx is most commonly utilized by living cells to propagate intracellular signals?
    (a) Acylation (b) Phosphorylation
    (c) Methylation (d) Decarboxylation
  83. Suppression mutation results in restoration of wild type phenotype. The suppression of mutant phenotype is usually brought about-
    (a) By misreading of mutant codon and incorporation of a correct amino acid
    (b) By insertion of anather copy of gene
    (c) By revertion of mutation to wild type
    (d) Any deletion of mutant gene
  84. A mouse in which one particular gene has been replaced by its inactivated form
    generated in vitro is called-
    (a) Transgenic mouse (b) Nude mouse
    (c) Knock out mouse (d) Mutant mouse
  85. Which is not a signal transducting molecule-
    (a) G protein coupled receptor (b) MAP kinase
    (c) Protein kinase C (d) Insulin
  86. Fibronectin is a protein found in –
    (a) RER (b) Extracellular matrix
    (c) SER (d) Nuclear membrane
  87. After translation proteins are modified in-
    (a) Golgi apparatus (b) Lysosome
    (c) Centrosome (d) Ribosome
  88. In AIDS the primary problem is-
    (a) B cells are not functional
    (b) Natural killer cells kill autulogous cells
    (c) Macrophages are not functional
    (d) T helper are not functional
  89. Which one of the following group of proteins will be most conserved among different organisms-
    (a) Metabolism (b) Transcription
    (c) Translation (d) Cell signaling
  90. The following are samples of repetitive elements that are found in a typical eukaryotic genome-
    (a) r-RNA (b) t-RNA
    (c) SINES and LINES (d) Microsatellite
    The ascending order in terms of number of repeats
    (a) ABCD (b) DCBA
    (c) CBAD (d) ADBC
  91. Which sequence are best to evaluate the phylogeny of closely related mammals-
    (a) Coding sequences
    (b) Ribosomal proteins
    (c) SINES and LINES
    (d) Centromeric and telomeric sequences
  92. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is an inherited condition what causes a loss of central vision resulting from a mutation in mitochondrial DNA. What is the probability of the children of a man with mutations in two genes and a woman with normal mitochondrial DNA inheriting this disorder as carriers?
    (a) 0 % (b) 100 %
    (c) 50 % (d) 66.67 %
  93. A contig from the genome sequence of Plasmodium falciparum, with a single start codon when translated, was found to have high similarity with the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthase. Which of following statement is correct-
    (a) It contains domains present in both proteins, but neither in two enzymes
    (b) It is single bi-functional protein
    (c) Both the protein share a common domain
    (d) The protein is unrelated to both the enzymes. There is a problem with the
    similarity search program used for the study
  94. The consensus sequence of 5′ and 3′ splice junctions in eukaryotic m-RNA contains-
    (a) GU-GA (b) GU-AG
    (c) AG-GU (d) CG-AG
  95. Small cytoplasmic RNA (Sc-RNA) in eukaryotic cell-
    (a) Splice primary transcript
    (b) Direct primary transcript
    (c) Direct protein Traffic
    (d) Transport amino acids
  96. In an experiment involving polymerase chain reaction (PCR) you have started with 100 ng of primers and 1 ng of genomic DNA. After a number of cycles, the same amount of amplified product was observed. Indicate which of the following is the reason for observation-
    (a) Enzymes gets inactivated
    (b) Limitations of primers
    (c) Degradation of template
    (d) Substrate inhibition of enzyme
  97. A genetic cross between two F1 -hybrid pea plants for spherical seeds will yield what percent spherical-seeded plants in the F2 generation? (spherical is dominant over dented)
    (a) 100% (b) 75%
    (c) 50% (d) 25%
  98. A genetic cross between two F1 -hybrid pea plants having yellow seeds will yield what percent green-seeded plants in the F2 generation? Yellow seeds are dominant to green.
    (a) 100% (b) 25%
    (c) 50% (d) 75%
  99. When true-breeding tall stem pea plants are crossed with true-breeding short stem pea plants, all of the plants, and 3/4 of the _ plants had tall stems. Therefore, tall stems are dominant.
    (a) F1, F2
    (b) G1, G2
    (c) parental, F2
    (d) F2, parental
  100. To identify the genotype of yellow-seeded pea plants as either homozygous dominant
    (YY) or heterozygous (Yy), you could do a test cross with plants of genotype _.
    (a) y (b) Y
    (c) yy (d) YY

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CSIR NET Life Science – Genetics Chapterwise Practice Questions Free : ANSWER KEY

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01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (b) 04. (d) 05. (c) 06. (b)
07. (a) 08. (b) 09. (c) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (d)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (b)
55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d)
67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (c)
79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (c)
85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (a)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (d) 96. (a)
97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (c)

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How do I clear CSIR NET life science in first attempt? ›

It is ideal to practice with last year's paper to clear your doubts.
  1. Peruse & learn the CSIR NET syllabus.
  2. Devise a study plan & record notes and key points.
  3. Always revise.
  4. Solve previous year papers.
  5. Time management & mock tests.
  6. Be optimistic.
  7. CSIR NET Exam Preparation Tricks – Subject Wise CSIR NET Strategies.
  8. I.
18 Feb 2021

What is a good score in CSIR NET life science? ›

If you can score 75-80, then extra 40 marks you can easily get from Section A and B. So, 115-120 are enough to qualify CSIR NET JRF Life Sciences, as your percentage will reach to 57.5-60%.

Can an average student crack CSIR NET? ›

So there you have it, Yes An Average Student Sorry A Knowledge Seeker Student can qualify CSIR NET exam yes definitely but you have to take the 10 steps as we mentioned in this video and follow the 5 Magical rules. Success will be at your fingertips! All the Best. Have a Bright Life.

Is CSIR NET difficult to crack? ›

The answer is yes and No. Yes for students who believe they can and No for students who just keep looking for answers to such questions, rather than taking up the pen & paper and diving deep into the CSIR NET Exam Preparation Journey. CSIR NET Exam is not so tough that no one can clear it.

Does questions repeat in CSIR NET exam? ›

ANSWER (1) Hello, Questions are not repeated in any of the national level exams. Only the questions with same concepts are asked in the exam. So, no, in CSIR NET Exam None of the questions are repeated but questions with same concepts are asked.

Can we crack CSIR NET in 1 month? ›

Aspirants must be getting nervous but with the right strategy, they can crack CSIR-NET 2022 NET exam in one month. Here we have come up with 30 days CSIR NET study plan that will help you definitely to secure a good rank! Before directly jump to the study plan let's have a look at some important preparation strategies.

What is the expected cut off for CSIR NET 2022? ›

CSIR NET Cut Off 2022 will be released after the exam on the CSIR website.
CSIR NET Chemical Science Expected Cut Off.
CategoryExpected Cut off Marks (%)
2 more rows
18 Sept 2022

How many students qualified CSIR NET 2022? ›

NTA released the CSIR NET 2021 Result and scorecard on 9th March 2022 and will soon release the result for June 2022 exam.
CSIR NET Exam 2021 Statistics.
CSIR NET Exam StatsNumbers
Total Candidates Registered207306
Total Candidates Appeared159824
Candidates Qualified for CSIR NET JRF-
4 more rows
10 Oct 2022

What is percentile score in CSIR? ›

The Percentile scores obtained by the candidates are based on their performance of the candidates. In this process, the marks obtained by candidates in different shifts are transformed into a scale ranging from 0 to 100 for every session.

Can an average student crack CAT in 3 months? ›

Some people can crack CAT in 4 months even as an average student and can take 6 months for some people. By this, you can understand that an average student requires a minimum time of 6 to 7 months to prepare for the CAT exam.

Can I clear CSIR NET without coaching? ›

UGC conducts the NET Exam as Computer-Based Testing. The test contains two papers (Paper 1 and Paper 2) with no break in between. All the questions are objective-based. With every passing year, the competition is increasing, but a candidate can easily prepare for NET exam without coaching.

Is CSIR NET exam tough? ›

Part-A of the paper was the easiest. Questions from part-B and -C were easy but conceptual. Life Sciences: CSIR NET Life Sciences paper was moderate in difficulty level. Part-B was the easiest.
CSIR NET Exam Analysis 2019.
CSIR NET PapersDifficulty Level
Physical SciencesEasy to Moderate
Life SciencesEasy to Moderate
3 more rows

What is the minimum marks to qualify CSIR NET? ›

CSIR NET Cut off: Important Points

For both JRF and Lectureship/ Assistant Professor, a minimum criterion of 33% is set for the General, OBC, and EWS categories, while 25% is set for the SC, ST, and PWD categories.

Is Eduncle good for CSIR NET? ›

Eduncle is one of the finest coaching centres. The course material provided here is very useful to get good marks in csir ugc net exam. The course materials clear all doubts. I suggest everyone to join here if you are interested in getting good rank in CSIR NET.

Which is the toughest exam in India? ›

ISI (Indian Statistical Institute) Admission Test is a national level. It is considered to be most toughest exam in India.

Can I clear CSIR NET without coaching? ›

UGC conducts the NET Exam as Computer-Based Testing. The test contains two papers (Paper 1 and Paper 2) with no break in between. All the questions are objective-based. With every passing year, the competition is increasing, but a candidate can easily prepare for NET exam without coaching.

How many students get JRF in CSIR NET Life Science? ›

NTA CSIR UGC NET is conducted in 5 subjects: Life Sciences, Physical Sciences, Chemical Sciences, Earth Sciences, and Mathematical Sciences, twice a year.
CSIR NET Exam 2021 Statistics.
CSIR NET Exam StatsNumbers
Total Candidates Registered207306
Total Candidates Appeared159824
Candidates Qualified for CSIR NET JRF-
4 more rows
10 Oct 2022

Is CSIR NET exam tough? ›

Part-A of the paper was the easiest. Questions from part-B and -C were easy but conceptual. Life Sciences: CSIR NET Life Sciences paper was moderate in difficulty level. Part-B was the easiest.
CSIR NET Exam Analysis 2019.
CSIR NET PapersDifficulty Level
Physical SciencesEasy to Moderate
Life SciencesEasy to Moderate
3 more rows

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